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NR 565 Week 4 Midterm Exam – Practice Questions

1. Question: What is the most significant clinical pharmacokinetic age-related change seen in older adults?
2. Question: What age group does we use Beer’s Criteria for prescriptive guidance?
3. Question: Understand lipid soluble drugs and what that means in patients with increased total body
4. Question: Know CYP 450 Inhibitor medications
5. Question: What does it mean if a patient has poor metabolism phenotype?
6. Question: What does it mean if a medicat on is hepatotoxic
7. Question: Know what it means for a medication to be a pure opioid agonist and be able to list examples of those medications
8. Question: TCAs and SNRIs can treat what types of pain? Know which drugs are in each class
9. Question: Osteoarthritis preferred treatment options?
10. Question: Be able to calculate patient’s overdose risk
11. Question: Understand Methadone and who is at highest risk for fatal dysrhythmias
12. Question: Know when to prescribe naloxone?
13. Question: What is the PEG Assessment Sale?
14. Question: Know the schedules of medications and be able to give examples of each schedule
15. Question: Why wouldn’t a patient with CHF take a CCB?
16. Question: What is the first line for treatment of HTN in a DM patient
17. Question: Understand lab monitoring for ACE-I, Thiazides, and Beta Blockers
18. Question: What is a cardiac glycoside?
19. What is the mechanism of action and effect on patient?
20. Question: Understand contraindications of ACE-I
21. Question: What hyperlipidemia treatments are safe in pregnancy
22. Question: If a patient is on Verapamil and is prescribed Digoxin- what ADR needs to be closely monitored for
23. Question: Contraindication for Ranolazine?
24. Question: Explain the mechanism of action for NSAIDs
25. Question: Explain mechanism of action for Methotrexate and indication
26. Question: What is a DMARD?
27. Question: Understand treatment options for Gout and which mediations need to be adjusted based on renal or hepatic function
28. Question: What is the mechanism of action of organic nitrates
29. Question: What is a CHADS2 score and what do the numbers associated mean?
30. Question: Be able to identify missing requirements from prescriptions
    

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NR 565 Week 4 Midterm Exam: Review Questions

1. Question: What schedule is Vicodin?
2. Question: What is the typical starting dose of amlodipine?
3. Question: What is the typical dose of codeine?
4. Question: What is the typical dose of alendronate?
5. Question: How many milligrams are colchicine tabs?
6. Question: What is the typical dosage of Lortab?
7. Question: What is the typical starting dose of Lisinopril?
8. Question: What is the typical starting dose of Losartan?
9. Question: What are the treatments for osteoarthritis?
10. Question: First choice drug for acute gout?
11. Question: For patients with hepatic and renal impairment, what medications are contraindicated with colchicine?
12. Question: What are some possible adverse effects of Colchicine?
13. Question: What are some potential adverse effects of allopurinol?
14. Question: What gout medications require dosage adjustments based on renal and hepatic insufficiency?
15. Question: What medications are typically co-administered with gout treatments?
16. Question: What are some complications of untreated gout?
17. Question: All the following are treatments for osteoporosis except?
18. Question: What patient education should we provide for biphosphates?
19. Question: What is one rare but serious adverse effect of biphosphates?
20. Question: What are some drugs that interact with Celecoxib?
21. Question: What is the MOA- mechanism of action of NSAIDS?
22. Question: Examples of Disease Modifying Anti-Rheumatic Drugs (DMARDS) include all of the following EXCEPT:
23. Question: What baseline labs are needed before starting DMARDs?
24. Question: Patient teaching for DMARDs includes all the following except
25. Question: How should we educate our patients regarding DMARDs and contraceptive use?
26. Question: What is the black box warning for estrogen?
27. Question: What is the black box warning for bisphosphonates?
28. Question: What range is considered Stage 1 hypertension?
29. Question: What are some contraindications of beta blockers?
30. Question: What are some contraindications of ACEI?
31. Question: What is the major contraindication with Ranolazine?
32. Question: What clinical tools are used to treat hyperlipidemia?
33. Question: What range is stage 2 hypertension?
34. Question: What BP med should be avoided in African Americans?
35. Question: What medication is approved for hypertension in pregnancy?
36. Question: What is the mechanism of action for digoxin?
37. Question: What is the mechanism of action for Verapamil?
38. Question: What is the mechanism of action for nitro?
39. Question: Goals of treatment of angina include
40. Question: Drugs to treat angina include all the following except:
41. Question: What labs should be ordered for BP medication monitoring?
42. Question: What is the appropriate intervals for medication adjustments?
43. Question: All the following are true regarding aldosterone and how we manage effects except
44. Question: Patients who abruptly stop taking clonidine are at risk for what?
45. Question: Drug interactions to be mindful of, avoid, or adjust dosage of warfarin include al the following EXCEPT
46. Question: Drug interactions to be mindful of with Carbamazepine include
47. Question: Drug interactions to be mindful of with Digoxin including all the following EXCEPT:
48. Question: Quinidine can double the levels of what antidysrhythmic?
49. Question: Prescribing and lifespan considerations for the elderly include
50. Question: All the following are contraindications in pregnancy EXCEPT:
51. Question: All the following are patient and provider responsibilities in opioid drug therapies EXCEPT
52. Question: How would we approach conversations about Opioid Use Disorder?
53. Question: What types of pain can be treated with psychotropic medications?
54. Question: What are some risk factors of opioid use disorder?
55. Question: The risk factors for overdose and reasons to prescribe Naloxone include all EXCEPT:
56. Question: What is PEG assessment scale regarding chronic pain and opioid use?
57. Question: What conditions do NOT warrant opioid therapy?
58. Question: What is a morphine milligram equivalent (MME)?
59. Question: What is the Prescription Drug Monitoring Program (PDMP) and when should we use it?
60. Question: What are the outcomes of hepatic and renal insufficiency with opioid therapy?
61. Question: Regarding CYP450 inducers, what does CRAP GPS stand for?
62. Question: CYP450 inhibitors include all the following EXCEPT
63. Question: What is the most common CYP450 subtypes?
64. Question: What is a opioid agonist?
65. Question: What is an example of an opioid agonist?
66. Question: What is the outcome of having a poor metabolism phenotype?
67. Question: What is the role of the government agencies when it comes to prescription drugs?
68. Question: What is the black box warning for opioids like fentanyl?
69. Question: What is the black box warning for methadone?
70. Question: The risks for developing substance use disorder include all EXCEPT
71. Question: What conditions warrant opioid therapy?
72. Question: What schedule is Tylenol with codeine?
73. Question: What schedule is fentanyl, Dilaudid and oxycodone?
74. Question: What schedule is Adderall and Ritalin?
75. Question: What class of meds are Schedule 5?
76. Question: What schedule of meds cannot be prescribed by NPs?
77. Question: What is prescription authority?
78. Question: Who mandates prescription authority?
79. Question: What problems arise when prescription authority is limited?
80. Question: What are some of the responsibilities of prescribing?
81. Question: We can keep patients safe by doing all these things EXCEPT
82. Question: All these reasons for medical non-adherence EXCEPT
83. Question: What type of evidence should prescribers use to make treatment recommendations?
84. Question: All these physiological changes of aging have an impact on medication absorption EXCEPT
85. Question: All these physiological changes of aging have an impact on medication distribution EXCEPT
86. Question: All these physiological changes of aging have an impact on medication metabolism EXCEPT
87. Question: All these physiological changes of aging have an impact on medication excretion EXCEPT
88. Question: What is BEERS criteria?
89. Question: What schedule is Ativan, Xanax, and Valium?
90. Question: What schedule is tramadol?
91. Question: What is included in the black box warning for hydrocodone?